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Microbiology: Unit 5
 This page was last updated on 15-Jun-02

Main Menu / Study Aids / Self-Tests / Microbiology: Viruses & Immunology

 Self-Tests - Microbiology:
Viruses & Immunology
C
hoose the best answer for each question.  At the end of the quiz, click on the "Get Score" button and your quiz will automatically be graded.  The correct reponses will appear in the box underneath your score.

This test has 40 questions and covers viral disease processes and controls, and the principles of immunology and epidemiology.  It is the final unit of five in the Microbiology section.  Good luck!

1. A virus is an infectious agent made of nucleic acid and a protein coat which:
Is not alive and has no energy
Is obligate intracellular
Has either DNA or RNA
All of the above

2. Infectious proteins that are abnormally folded are called:
Prions
Enveloped viruses
Antigens
Naked viruses

3. Which of the following is NOT a viral shape?
Spherical
Helical
Rod-shaped
Polygonal

4. Which of the following viruses is NOT a DNA virus?
Papova virus
Toga virus
Adeno virus
Herpes virus

5. Which of the following is NOT an RNA virus?
Pox virus
Paramyxo virus
Rhabdo virus
Corona virus

6. An acquired response to a specific antigen is called a(n):
Non-specific immunity
Primary antibody response
Specific immunity
Interferon

7. Which of the following increases phagocytosis?
M-proteins
Complement
Both A and B
Neither A nor B

8. Which of the following causes T-cell proliferation, which helps to induce fever?
IgG
TNF
IL-1
IgA

9. Complement helps get rid of microbes in which of the following ways?
Cytolysis
Opsonization
Chemotactic for PMN
All of the above

10. A protein or polysaccharide component of microbes that stimulates an antibody response is called a(n):
Hapten
Antigen
Cytokine
Interferon

11. Which end of an antibody binds to the antigen, causing agglutination?
FAB
FC
C'
IgE

12. Antibody-mediated immunity is called:
Cellular immunity
Humoral immunity
Chemical immunity
Mechanical immunity

13. Which of the following binds to mast cells found in skin and fluid?
IgM
IgG
IgA
IgE

14. CD4 cells are:
Bone marrow stem cells
Primary helper T cells
Plasma cells
None of the above

15. Polio, hepatitis, pericarditis, aseptic meningitis and Hand-Foot-Mouth disease are all caused by which family of viruses?
Rhabdo virus
Roto virus
Picorna virus
Toga virus

16. Chicken pox, Epstein Barr and CMV are caused by which of the following viruses?
Adeno virus
Herpes virus
Papova virus
Parvo virus

17. The flu (influenza) is caused by:
Retro virus
Paramyxo virus
Picorna virus
Orthomyxo virus

18. Which of the following is NOT a step in viral DNA replication?
Adsorption
Reverse transcription
Maturation
Release

19. What is a cytopathic effect of viral infection?
Lysis
Inclusion bodies
Cell fusion
All of the above

20. Rabies is caused by the:
Picorna virus
Toga virus
Adeno virus
Rhabdo virus

21. The vaccine used to prevent Hepatitis B is:
HAVrix
HRIG
Recombivax
Varivax

22. An inflammation of the parotid salivary glands is indicative of which viral disease?
Measles
Mumps
Rubella
HIV

23. The Hanta virus, of the Retro virus family, is transmitted by:
Deer mice
Anopheles mosquito
Tsetse fly
Fleas

24. A region on the host chromosome that codes for viral DNA is called a:
Prion
J-chain
Provirus
Point-shift mutation

25. Which of the following viruses does NOT cross the placenta?
CMV
Herpes
Varicella
Rubella

26. Herpetic whitlow, caused by the Herpes virus, is transmitted:
Sexually
Via respiratory secretions
Through the mucous membranes
Nosocomially, via needle stick

27. The number one cause of pneumonia in infants is:
RSV
Influenza
Varicella-Zoster
Rubeola

28. Where is HIV harbored in the body?
In the meninges
In the lymph nodes and tissues
In the kidneys
At the site of initial infection

29. During which of the following stages of HIV infection would you expect to see three or more opportunitistic infections or rare cancers layered?
Acute primary
Asymptomatic
Symptomatic
AIDS

30. Which kind of viral test can detect a viral load as small as 10?
ELISA
NAT
TBT
IMViC

31. Which of the following drugs is a reverse transcriptase inhibitor?
Meclizine
Vancomycin
AZT
Saquinavir

32. Which of the following types of Hepatitis has symptoms that include jaundice, dark urine and clay stools?
Hepatitis A
Hepatitis B
Hepatitis C
Hepatitis D

33. Which of the following diseases caused by members of the Herpes virus family has a potential complication of splenic rupture?
Shingles
Mononucleosis
CMV
Herpes Simplex II

34. An allergic reaction consisting of acute inflammation would be consistent with:
Type I hypersensitivity
Type II hypersensitivity
Type III hypersensitivity
Type IV hypersensitivity

35. Interferons:
Are host specific
Interfere with viral replication
Have antiviral effects
All of the above

36. Serial passage involves:
Attenuating a virus through animal passage
Attentuating a virus by subculturing in the lab
Both A and B
Neither A nor B

37. Genital warts are caused by:
Papilloma
Chlamydia
Herpes Simplex
Erythema infectiosum

38. When given a shot of gamma globulin or antitoxin, you acquire:
Active, natural immunity
Passive, natural immunity
Active, artificial immunity
Passive, artificial immunity

39. The main mediator in Type I Hypersensitivity is:
IgE
IgM
IgG
Leukotreines

40. The characteristic response of Type III Hypersensitivity is:
Immediate
Cytotoxic
Immune complex
Delayed cell-mediated

Score =
Correct answers:


                   
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