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Microbiology: Unit 3
 This page was last updated on 15-Jun-02

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 Self-Tests - Microbiology:
Bacterial Diseases
hoose the best answer for each question.  At the end of the quiz, click on the "Get Score" button and your quiz will automatically be graded.  The correct reponses will appear in the box underneath your score.

This test has 50 questions and covers the pathophysiology of bacterial diseases.  It is the third of five units in the Microbiology section.  Good luck!

1. Which of the following bacteria is NOT associated with gram negative sepsis?
Klebsiella pneumoniae
Listeria monocytogenes
Escherichia coli
Neisseria meningitidia

2. Which of the following antibiotics would be used to treat MRSA?

3. Asplenic people are most likely to develop complications from all but which one of the following bacteria?
Staphylococcus aureus
Klebsiella pneumoniae
Hemophilus influenzae
Streptococcus pneumoniae

4. What is the most common anaerobe in normal body flora?
Salmonella enteriditis
Campylobacter jejuni
Yersinia pestis
Escherichia coli

5. Which of the following terms describes a variation within a bacterial species?
Frame shift mutation

6. Newborns are the group at highest risk for which of the following common causes of bacterial meningitis?
Streptococcus pneumoniae Group D
Neisseria meningitidis
Streptococcus pneumonia Group B
Hemophilus influenzae Type B

7. Which of the following drugs is NOT used to treat VISA?

8. Which of the following is NOT a predisposing condition for anaerobic infection?
Blood clots

9. Which of the following describes an infection that does not cause noticeable illness?
Asymptomatic infection
Subclinical infection
Acute infection

10. What is the most common cause of NGU?
Chlamydia trachomatis
Mycoplasma hominia
Gardnerella vaginalis
Neisseria gonorrhea

11. All but which one of the following cytokines can lead to septic shock?

12. Which of the following is NOT a common cause of vaginitis or vaginosis?
Trichomonas vaginalis
Garnderella vaginalis
Treponema pallidum

13. Which one of the following enterobacteriaceae is NOT always pathogenic?

14. Syphilis is caused by which of the following?
Helicobacter pylori
Proteus mirabilis
Treponema pallidum
Serratia marcesans

15. Borellia burgdorferi causes which disease?
Lyme's Disease
Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

16. How is leptospirosis, caused by Leptospira interrogans, transmitted?
Tick bite
Contaminated urine in food or water
Undercooked meat
Inhaled aerosol

17. What is the most common human pathogen/opportunist?
Staphylococcus aureus
Steptococcus pneumoniae
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Escherichia coli

18. Which of the following diseases would be expected to increase in the summer?
Chlamydia trachomatis
Legionella pneumophilia
Helicobacter pylori
Bacteriodes fragilis

19. Brucella abortussis, a cause of undulant fever, is transmitted in all but which of the following ways?
Direct contact with infected animals
Exposure to animal carcass
Exposure to animal feces
Drinking unpasteurized milk

20. Which of the following is NOT true about Bordetella pertussis?
Causes Whooping Cough
Attaches to ciliated cells with capsules
Complications can include pneumonia, brain damage and death
Gram negative anaerobe

21. Which of the following is NOT true of Neisseria gonorrhea?
Is a mucosal pathogen
Requires a vaginal pH of 5 or more to grow
Can disseminate in the immunosuppressed
Complications include ectopic pregnancy, PID and sterility

22. Which of the following is NOT true of Neisseria meningitidis?
Crosses the blood brain barrier
Has 3 serotypes - A, B, Y
Colonizes nasopharynx
Predisposed groups include diabetics

23. Helicobacter pylori, a cause of peptic ulcers and gastric carcinoma, is diagnosed by which of the following methods?
Serology (serum) test
Biopsy (invasive)
Radioactive isotope C14 test
All of the above

24. What is the #1 cause of food poisoning?
Campylobacter jejuni
Salmonella enteriditis
Escherichia coli
Clostridium botulinum

25. Which of the following members of the Vibrio family cause gastroenteritis?
Vibrio vulnificus
Virbrio cholerae
Vibrio parahaemolyticum
A and C

26. What is the #1 cause of bladder infections and HUS (hemolytic uremic syndrome)?
Ureaplasma urealytium
Escherichia coli
Gardnerella vaginalis
Chlamydia trachomatis

27. What is the incubation period for Shigella dysenteriae?
6 to 8 hours
24 to 48 hours
2 to 4 days
1 to 2 weeks

28. Which of the following does not occur when an individual is infected with Salmonella enteriditis?
Endotoxins cause inflammation and fever
Enterotoxins cause diarrhea
Cytotoxins lyse endothelial cells lining the intestinal tract
Proteolytic enzymes cause necrosis

29. What is the primary cause of death from Salmonella typhi (Typhoid fever)?
Hemorrhaging necrosis
DIC (disseminating intravascular coagulation)
High fever

30. In addition to aspleenic people and alcoholics, people with which of the following predisposing conditions are at risk for contracting a Klebsiella pneumoniae infection?
People in hospitals
People with gunshot wounds
People with IVs or trach tubes
All of the above

31. Yersinia pestis causes both the Bubonic Plague and the more deadly Pneumonic Plague. How is Pneumonic Plague transmitted?
The bite of a flea
Via rodents
Exchange of bodily fluids

32. HiB (Hemophilus influenzae Type B) causes:
Common colds
Asian flu
Secondary pneumonia

33. Cytotoxins develop clue cells in which of the following?
Chlamydia trachomatis
Gardnerella vaginalis
Herpes simplex I
Bacillus anthracis

34. Which of the following is frequently seen as a co-infection with Gardnerella?
Neisseria gonorrhea
Treponema pallidum
Bacteriodes fragilis
Staphylococcus aureus

35. Which of the following cause periodontal disease, gingivitis and Trench Mouth?

36. Rickettsia rickettsii causes Rocky Mountain Spotted fever when transmitted by tick bite. When transmitted by lice, it causes:
Epidemic typhus
Scarlet fever
Rheumatic fever

37. Community-acquired pneumonia is caused by which of the following?
Klebsiella pneumoniae
Chlamydia pneumoniae
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Mycoplasma pneumoniae

38. Which of the following is NOT true about Mycoplasma hominis?
Synonymous with Ureaplasma urealyticum
More prevalent in late summer/early fall
Vaccine uses conjugated polysaccharide B
Is endemic worldwide

39. Which of the following causes Toxic Shock Syndrome?
Staphylococcus aureus
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Streptococcus pyogenes
Trichomonas vaginalis

40. Which of the following is true of Bacillus anthracis (cutaneous or pulmonary anthrax)?
Remains viable in soil for decades
Must be treated before symptoms appear
Without treatment, pulmonary version is 100% fatal
All of the above

41. Which of the following members of the Clostridium family causes pseudomembranous colitis?
Clostridium tetani
Clostridium difficile
Clostridium botulinum
Clostridium perfringens

42. Which of the following is NOT a major symptom of Corynebacterium diphtheriae?
Formation of a leathery pseudomembrane
Lesions on tonsils
Flat, pink rash on abdomen
Inflammation of heart and nervous system

43. Listeria monocytogenes, caused by eating infected low-acid cheeses, deli food, eggs, poultry or fish, can be killed by:
Salt or hypertonic environment
None of the above

44. Mycobacterium tuberculosis:
Penetrates the alveoli when inhaled
Destroys tissue in the lymph system
Forms lesions around which granulomas form
All of the above

45. Which of the following symtoms are not indicative of septic shock?
Fever, decreased blood pressure
Renal failure and liver dysfunction
Pulmonary difficulty and hemorrhaging
Cardiac symptoms and DIC

46. Which of the following methods is used to help clear an anaerobic infection?
Removal of dead tissue
Drainage of infected area
Oxidizing agents/hyperbaric chambers
All of the above

47. What causes gas gangrene?
Clostridium perfringens
Leptospira interrogans
Staphylococcus aureus
Escherichia coli

48. What is the most common portal of entry for bacteria?
Through a break in the skin
Across the mucous membranes
Both A & B
Neither A nor B

49. What is the most common portal of exit?
Respiratory (through mouth or nose)
Both A & B
Neither A nor B

50. What is the first symptom of Treponema pallidum?
Chancre at infection site
Bullseye rash
Butterfly rash
Vaginal discharge

Score =
Correct answers:

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