2. Which of the following antibiotics would be used to treat MRSA? Methicillin Penicillin Vancomycin Nystatin
3. Asplenic people are most likely to develop complications from all but which one of the following bacteria? Staphylococcus aureus Klebsiella pneumoniae Hemophilus influenzae Streptococcus pneumoniae
4. What is the most common anaerobe in normal body flora? Salmonella enteriditis Campylobacter jejuni Yersinia pestis Escherichia coli
5. Which of the following terms describes a variation within a bacterial species? Serovar Strain Frame shift mutation Cytokine
6. Newborns are the group at highest risk for which of the following common causes of bacterial meningitis? Streptococcus pneumoniae Group D Neisseria meningitidis Streptococcus pneumonia Group B Hemophilus influenzae Type B
7. Which of the following drugs is NOT used to treat VISA? Linezolid Synercid Azithromycin Zyvox
8. Which of the following is NOT a predisposing condition for anaerobic infection? Lacerations Blood clots Ischemia Edema
9. Which of the following describes an infection that does not cause noticeable illness? Superinfection Asymptomatic infection Subclinical infection Acute infection
10. What is the most common cause of NGU? Chlamydia trachomatis Mycoplasma hominia Gardnerella vaginalis Neisseria gonorrhea
11. All but which one of the following cytokines can lead to septic shock? IL-1 TNF G-CSF IL-6
12. Which of the following is NOT a common cause of vaginitis or vaginosis? Candidalvivans Trichomonas vaginalis Garnderella vaginalis Treponema pallidum
13. Which one of the following enterobacteriaceae is NOT always pathogenic? Shigella Salmonella Klebsiella Citrobacter
14. Syphilis is caused by which of the following? Helicobacter pylori Proteus mirabilis Treponema pallidum Serratia marcesans
15. Borellia burgdorferi causes which disease? Lyme's Disease Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever Hanta Rabies
16. How is leptospirosis, caused by Leptospira interrogans, transmitted? Tick bite Contaminated urine in food or water Undercooked meat Inhaled aerosol
17. What is the most common human pathogen/opportunist? Staphylococcus aureus Steptococcus pneumoniae Pseudomonas aeruginosa Escherichia coli
18. Which of the following diseases would be expected to increase in the summer? Chlamydia trachomatis Legionella pneumophilia Helicobacter pylori Bacteriodes fragilis
19. Brucella abortussis, a cause of undulant fever, is transmitted in all but which of the following ways? Direct contact with infected animals Exposure to animal carcass Exposure to animal feces Drinking unpasteurized milk
20. Which of the following is NOT true about Bordetella pertussis? Causes Whooping Cough Attaches to ciliated cells with capsules Complications can include pneumonia, brain damage and death Gram negative anaerobe
21. Which of the following is NOT true of Neisseria gonorrhea? Is a mucosal pathogen Requires a vaginal pH of 5 or more to grow Can disseminate in the immunosuppressed Complications include ectopic pregnancy, PID and sterility
22. Which of the following is NOT true of Neisseria meningitidis? Crosses the blood brain barrier Has 3 serotypes - A, B, Y Colonizes nasopharynx Predisposed groups include diabetics
23. Helicobacter pylori, a cause of peptic ulcers and gastric carcinoma, is diagnosed by which of the following methods? Serology (serum) test Biopsy (invasive) Radioactive isotope C14 test All of the above
24. What is the #1 cause of food poisoning? Campylobacter jejuni Salmonella enteriditis Escherichia coli Clostridium botulinum
25. Which of the following members of the Vibrio family cause gastroenteritis? Vibrio vulnificus Virbrio cholerae Vibrio parahaemolyticum A and C
26. What is the #1 cause of bladder infections and HUS (hemolytic uremic syndrome)? Ureaplasma urealytium Escherichia coli Gardnerella vaginalis Chlamydia trachomatis
27. What is the incubation period for Shigella dysenteriae? 6 to 8 hours 24 to 48 hours 2 to 4 days 1 to 2 weeks
28. Which of the following does not occur when an individual is infected with Salmonella enteriditis? Endotoxins cause inflammation and fever Enterotoxins cause diarrhea Cytotoxins lyse endothelial cells lining the intestinal tract Proteolytic enzymes cause necrosis
29. What is the primary cause of death from Salmonella typhi (Typhoid fever)? Hemorrhaging necrosis DIC (disseminating intravascular coagulation) Toxemia High fever
30. In addition to aspleenic people and alcoholics, people with which of the following predisposing conditions are at risk for contracting a Klebsiella pneumoniae infection? People in hospitals People with gunshot wounds People with IVs or trach tubes All of the above
31. Yersinia pestis causes both the Bubonic Plague and the more deadly Pneumonic Plague. How is Pneumonic Plague transmitted? The bite of a flea Via rodents Air-borne Exchange of bodily fluids
32. HiB (Hemophilus influenzae Type B) causes: Common colds Hemophilia Asian flu Secondary pneumonia
33. Cytotoxins develop clue cells in which of the following? Chlamydia trachomatis Gardnerella vaginalis Herpes simplex I Bacillus anthracis
34. Which of the following is frequently seen as a co-infection with Gardnerella? Neisseria gonorrhea Treponema pallidum Bacteriodes fragilis Staphylococcus aureus
35. Which of the following cause periodontal disease, gingivitis and Trench Mouth? Fusobacterium Citrobacter Mycobacterium Morganella
36. Rickettsia rickettsii causes Rocky Mountain Spotted fever when transmitted by tick bite. When transmitted by lice, it causes: Epidemic typhus Scarlet fever Hydrocephalus Rheumatic fever
37. Community-acquired pneumonia is caused by which of the following? Klebsiella pneumoniae Chlamydia pneumoniae Streptococcus pneumoniae Mycoplasma pneumoniae
38. Which of the following is NOT true about Mycoplasma hominis? Synonymous with Ureaplasma urealyticum More prevalent in late summer/early fall Vaccine uses conjugated polysaccharide B Is endemic worldwide
39. Which of the following causes Toxic Shock Syndrome? Staphylococcus aureus Pseudomonas aeruginosa Streptococcus pyogenes Trichomonas vaginalis
40. Which of the following is true of Bacillus anthracis (cutaneous or pulmonary anthrax)? Remains viable in soil for decades Must be treated before symptoms appear Without treatment, pulmonary version is 100% fatal All of the above
41. Which of the following members of the Clostridium family causes pseudomembranous colitis? Clostridium tetani Clostridium difficile Clostridium botulinum Clostridium perfringens
42. Which of the following is NOT a major symptom of Corynebacterium diphtheriae? Formation of a leathery pseudomembrane Lesions on tonsils Flat, pink rash on abdomen Inflammation of heart and nervous system
43. Listeria monocytogenes, caused by eating infected low-acid cheeses, deli food, eggs, poultry or fish, can be killed by: Salt or hypertonic environment Acid Refrigeration None of the above
44. Mycobacterium tuberculosis: Penetrates the alveoli when inhaled Destroys tissue in the lymph system Forms lesions around which granulomas form All of the above
45. Which of the following symtoms are not indicative of septic shock? Fever, decreased blood pressure Renal failure and liver dysfunction Pulmonary difficulty and hemorrhaging Cardiac symptoms and DIC
46. Which of the following methods is used to help clear an anaerobic infection? Removal of dead tissue Drainage of infected area Oxidizing agents/hyperbaric chambers All of the above
47. What causes gas gangrene? Clostridium perfringens Leptospira interrogans Staphylococcus aureus Escherichia coli
48. What is the most common portal of entry for bacteria? Through a break in the skin Across the mucous membranes Both A & B Neither A nor B
49. What is the most common portal of exit? Respiratory (through mouth or nose) Feces Both A & B Neither A nor B
50. What is the first symptom of Treponema pallidum? Chancre at infection site Bullseye rash Butterfly rash Vaginal discharge
Score = Correct answers: